Answer Key HPAS/HAS Mock Test Full Syllabus 7 June 2018
Answer Key HPAS/HAS Mock Test Full Syllabus
1.Consider the following statements about Inner Line permit
1.It is issued by the Government of India to grant an Indian citizen to travel into a protected area for a limited period.
2.The system was introduced by the union government after National Emergency (1975) due to increase in insurgency in north east region.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only|
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the Government of India to grant inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited period. It is obligatory for Indians residing outside those states to obtain permission prior to entering the protected areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
The system was introduced by the British to protect their commercial interests, particularly in oil and tea, and continues now essentially as a mechanism to firewall the tribal people and their culture from onslaughts by outsiders.
2.Consider the following statements about Earth Hour
1.It is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on climate change and protect the planet.
2.It is an initiative of United National Environmental Programme.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct:
Earth Hour is a global grassroots movement uniting people to take action on climate change.and protect the planet. Engaging a massive mainstream community, Earth Hour was famously started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007. Since then, it has grown to engage millions of supporters in more than 170 countries and territories, inspiring individuals and organizations worldwide to take climate action. As the movement grows, the one-hour lights out event continues to be the symbol of a broader commitment towards the planet.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Earth Hour is an initiative of WWF. In 2007, WWF initiated Earth Hour as a way of engaging a broad section of society in the environmental issues challenging citizens across the world. WWF embraced the idea of an open source campaign that would allow communities and organizations to become part of a global movement to protect our planet.
3.Reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech can be imposed on which of the following grounds?
1.Morality and decency
2.Friendly relations with foreign states
3.Defamation
4.Sovereignty of the country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3and4
Ans: D
Explanation:
As per Article 19 of the constitution, reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech can be imposed on the following grounds- the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
4.Consider the following statements about Pro-tem Speaker
1.The leader of the house appoints one of the senior members as pro-tem speaker.
2.The tenure of the protem speaker is fifteen days from the date the newly formed house starts its
session.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
President appoints the senior most member of the house as protem speaker. As soon as the new government is formed, the Legislative Section of Parliament prepares a list of the senior most Lok Sabha members. The list is then submitted to the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs for the appointment of protem Speaker. Thereafter, the minister submits a note to the President seeking his approval to the appointment of the protem Speaker.
Statement 2 is incorrect:
Till a regular Speaker is elected, a protem Speaker is appointed who administers oath to a new House and conducts its proceedings. There is no such tenure fixed for the pro tem speaker.
5.Consider the following statements about Civil disobedience Movement
1.Movement was launched based on the issue of salt.
2.Peshawar was captured by the violent masses under KhudaikKhidmatgars.
3. Simon Commission report was published after the Movement came to an end.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Land 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans: A
Explanation:
The movement of civil disobedience was launched based on the issue of salt. Salt was an item of basic necessity for all and any taxation on it would affect the poorest of the poor, thus salt became the symbol of the deprivation and oppression of the Indian people. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
In the farthest north there was a massive demonstration at Peshawar, Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan and his followers the Khudai Khidmatgars or the Red Shirts had been active here doing constructive work.
The city came under the control of the masses for at least a week and the soldiers of the Garhwali regiment refused to fire at the unarmed crowds as they remained peaceful. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Simon Commission came to India.in the year 1928. And Civil disobedience movement launched in the 1930-31.{Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
6.As per the constitution of India which of the following are fundamental duties of an Indian citizen?
1.To abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions.
2.To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
3.To protect monuments of national importance.
4.To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2and3only
({c) 1,2and4only
(d) 1,2,3and4
Ans: C
Explanation:
As per Article 51A of the constitution, following are the fundamental duties of an Indian citizen-
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem;
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
(g) To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
{i) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
{j) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
(k) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
To protect monuments of national importance is a DPSP.
7.The painting:’Lady in The Moon Light’is a creation of:
(a) AbanindraNath Tagore
(b) Raja Ravi Verma
(c) Amrita Shergill
(d) All of the above have painted on the similar theme
Ans: B
Explanation:
Towards the close of the nineteenth century, Indian painting, as an extension of the Indian miniature painting, snapped and fell on the decline and degenerated into feeble and unfelt imitation largely due to historical reasons, both political and sociological, resulting in the creation of a lacuna which was not filled until the early years of the twentieth century.Then followed the newly ushered Western concept of naturalism, the foremost exponent of which was Raja Ravi Verma. ‘Lady in The Moon Light’ is a creation of Raja Ravi Verma.
8.Consider the following statements
1.Both sedimentary and metamorphic rocks are formed from the igneous rocks.
2.Igneous rocks are formed under the action of pressure,volume and temperature changes.
3.Pegmatite, tuff and gabbro are formed by solidification and cooling of magma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) land3only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2and3only
(d) 2 only
Ans: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct.As igneous rocks form out of magma and lavafrom the interior of the earth, they are knownas primary rocks. Both the sedimentary and metamorphic rocksare formed from these primary rocks.
Statement 2 is incorrect.The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’.These rocks form under the action of pressure,volume and temperature (PVT) changes.Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forceddown to lower
levels by tectonic processes orwhen molten magma rising through the crustwhen molten magma rising through the crustcomes in contact with the crustal rocks or theunderlying rocks are subjected to greatamounts of pressure by overlying rocks.
Statement 3 is correct. The igneous rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifies.
Granite,gabbro,pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some ofthe examples of igneous rocks.
9.Consider the following statements about NHRC
1.The commission cannot enquire suomotu in to a complaint of violation of human rights.
2.It can visit any jail for the study of the living conditions of the inmates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect & statement 2 is correct
The National Human Rights Commission. is a statutory body established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Functions of the Commission:
The Commission shall perform all or any of the following functions, namely:-
(a) Inquire, suomotu or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf or ona direction or order of any court, into complaint of (Hence statement 1 is incorrect) (i) violation of human rights or abetment thereof;
{ii) negligence in the prevention of such violation, by a public servant;
(b) intervene in any proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court with the approval of such court;
(c) visit any jail or other institution under the control of the State Government, where persons are detained or lodged for purposes of treatment, reformation or protection, for the study of the living conditions of the inmates thereof and make recommendations thereon to the Government;{Statement 2 is correct)
(d) review the safeguards provided by or under the Constitution or any law for the time being in force for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation;
(e) review the factors, including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend appropriate remedial measures;
(f) study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation;
(g) undertake and promote research in the field of human rights;
(h) spread human rights literacy among various sections of society and promote awareness of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights through publications, the media, seminars and other available means;
{i) encourage the efforts of non-governmental organisations and institutions working in the field of human rights;
{j) such other functions as it may consider necessary for the protection of human rights.
10.Match the following Biosphere Reserve of India
BiosphereReserve -States
1.Nokrek A. Sikkim
2. Kanchenjunga B.Arunachal Pradesh
3. Dibru-Saikhowa C. Meghalaya
4. DihangDibang D. Assam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1-C 2-A 3-D 4-B (b) 1-B 2-A 3-C 4-D(c) 1-D 2-B 3-D 4-A (d) 1-D 2-A 3-B 4-C
Ans: A
11.Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) 2.0’.
1.It is the second edition of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan which aims at higher educational institutions
providing solutions tothe problems of villages.
2.The Scheme was launched by NITI Aayog.
Which of the aboveis/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
The HRD ministry launched the second edition of the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan under which students from 750 higher educational institutions from across the country will adopt villages and visit them to get acquainted with lifestyle of
people there and the problems faced by them.
The mission involves students from colleges and universities to go to nearby villages to get acquainted with the life of village people and the problems faced by them in day-to- day life.
Under the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan 2.0, the institutions have been selected on a Challenge Mode and the scheme have been extended to 750 reputed Higher Educational Institutes (both public and private) of the country.
12.consider the following statements :
1.The preamble is not a source of power to the legislature but acts as a prohibition upon its powers.
2.The words secular and socialist were added to the Preamble by the 44th amendment Act.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect
The Supreme Court in the Keshvanand Bharti case held that the Preamble is neither a source of power nor a source of limitations on the legislature. However, the Preamble has a significant role to play in the interpretation of statues, also in the interpretation of provisions of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect
The words socialist and secular were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act. The word integrity was also added by the 42nd amendment Act.
13.The UNESCO has recently placed the Old city of Hebron in the list of Endangered Heritage sites. The city of Hebron is located in which country?
(a) Syria
(b) Israel
(c) Palestine
(d) Afghanistan
Ans: C
Explanation:
UNESCO has recently listed Hebron’s Old City as endangered Palestinian heritage sites. The city is considered to be a holy site sacred to both Jews and Muslims.
The UNESCO resolution notes Hebron’s claim to be one of the oldest cities in the world, dating from the Chalcolithic period or more than 3,000 years BC and at various times conquered by Romans, Jews, Crusaders and Mamluks.
Jews believe the Tomb of the Patriarchs {also known as the Cave of the Patriarchs) is where Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and their wives are buried. Muslims, who, like Christians, also revere Abraham, built the Ibrahimi mosque, also known as the Sanctuary of Abraham, in the 14th century.
14.Consider the following statements about Payments Bank and choose the correct one/s
1.Payments bank were established under differentiated bank licence by Reserve Bank of India.
2.These banks are not required to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
3.Non-Banking Finance Companies are also eligible to apply fora payments bank license.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Land 3 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
There are two kinds of banking licences that are granted by the Reserve Bank of India – universal bank licence and differentiated bank licence. Payments bank comes under a differentiated bank licence since it cannot offer all the services that a commercial bank offers. In particular, a payments bank cannot. lend. It can take deposits upto%1 lakh per account and it can issue debit cards but not credit cards. The main objective is to further financial inclusion by providing small savings accounts and payments/remittance services to migrant labour workforce, low income households, small businesses and other unorganised sector entities.
RBI permits non-bank Prepaid Payment Instrument (PPI) issuers, individuals and professionals, non- banking finance companies (NBFCs), corporate business correspondents (BCs), mobile telephone companies, super market chains, companies, real sector cooperatives that are owned and controlled by residents and public sector entities to apply for.a payments bank licence. Setting up of a joint venture by a promoter with an existing commercial bank is also: allowed.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT
RBI has mandated the minimum paid-up equity capital for payments bank at 3100 crore. Apart from maintaining Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), these entities have to invest a minimum 75% of demand deposit balances in Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)-eligible government securities or treasury bills with maturity of up to one year and hold a maximum of 25% in current and time/fixed deposits with other commercial banks for operational purposes and liquidity management.
15.Consider the following statements
1.A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, is called a convex mirror.
2.Concave mirrors are commonly used _ in torches, search-lights and vehicles headlights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror may be curved inwards or outwards. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, that is, faces towards the centre of the sphere, is called a concave mirror. A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved outwards, is called a convex mirror.
Statement 2 is correct: Concave mirrors are commonly used in torches, search-lights and vehicles headlights to get powerful parallel beams of light. They are often used as shaving mirrors to see a larger image of the face. The dentists use concave mirrors to see large images of the teeth of patients. Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar furnaces.
Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear- view (wing) mirrors in vehicles. These mirrors are fitted on the sides of the vehicle, enabling the driver to see traffic behind him/her to facilitate safe driving. Convex mirrors are preferred because they always give an erect, though diminished, image.
16.oldest DFI in India :
A.IFCl B.Nabard C.EXIM D.NHB
Ans.A
17.Sirroco is a wind :
A.Warm B.cold C.Humid..D.NOTA
Ans.A
Explanation:
Sirocco is a warm wind that flows from Sahara Desert towards the Mediterranean Sea. Mistral is a cold wind that flows over the Massif Central in France.
18.Citizenship Act 1955, prescribes which of the following ways to acquire citizenship?
1.By birth
2.By registration
3.By descent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2and3
Ans: D
Explanation:
The Citizenship Act 1955, provides for the following ways to acquire citizenship
– Citizenship by Birth
– Citizenship by Descent
– Citizenship by Registration
– Citizenship by Naturalization
-by incorporation of territory
As per the constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
19. Consider the following Ramsar sites and their location
1.Hokersar Wetland Kashmir – Jammu-and
2.Sasthamkotta lake – Tamil Nadu
3.DeeporBeel – West Bengal
Choose the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(d) 1,2and3
Ans: A
Explanation:
There are 26 Ramsar sites in India. Hokersar is in Jammu and Kashmir, Sasthamkotttalake is in Kerala and
DeeporBeel is in Assam. Hence (a) is the right match.
Remaining Ramsar sites are:
- Asthamudi Wetland – Kerala
- Bhitarkanika Mangroves – Orissa
- Bhoj Wetlands – Madhya Pradesh
- Chandertal Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
- Chilka Lake — Orissa
- East Calcutta Wetlands – West Bengal
- Harike Lake — Punjab
- Hokera Wetland – Jammu and Kashmir
- Kanjli Lake — Punjab
- Keoladeo Ghana NP — Rajasthan
- Kolleru Lake – Andhra Pradesh
- Loktak Lake — Manipur
- Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary — Gujarat
- Point Calimere – Tamil Nadu
- Pong Dam Lake – Himachal Pradesh
- Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
- Ropar Lake — Punjab
- Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura
- Sambhar Lake — Rajasthan
- Surinsar-Mansar Lakes – Jammu and Kashmir
- Tsomoriri Lake – Jammu and Kashmir
- VembanadKol Wetland — Kerala
- Upper Ganga River (Brijghat to Narora Stretch) – Uttar Pradesh
- Wular Lake – Jammu & Kashmir
20.The term “Biome” refers to:
(a) Largest recognisable assemblage of animals and plants on the Earth.
(b) A system consisting of biotic and abiotic components.
(c) Location where a plant or animal lives.
(d) None of the above
ANS: A
Explanation:
(a) A Biome is the largest recognisable assemblage of animals and plants on the Earth. The distribution of the biomes is controlled mainly by climate.
(b) An ecosystem is a system consisting of biotic and abiotic components. Both these groups are interrelated and interacting.
(c) A habitat is the location where a plant or animal lives.
21.Consider the following statements.
1. Ozone layer shields earth from the harmful ultraviolet ‘A’ radiation.
2. Bromine is more effective at destroying ozone than Chlorine. Choose the correct statements by using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: B
Explanation:
As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, all UV‘C’ and most UV‘B’ is absorbed by ozone, water vapour, oxygen and carbon dioxide. UV‘A’ is not filtered as significantly by the atmosphere. The ozone layer is a belt of the naturally occurring gas “ozone.” It sits 9.3 to 18.6 miles (15 to 30 kilometers) above Earth, and serves asa shield from the harmful ultraviolet ‘B’ (UVB) radiation emitted by the sun. Hence statement.1 is incorrect.
Free chlorine atoms and chlorine-containing gases, such as chlorine monoxide (CIO), break ozone molecules apart by stripping away one of the three oxygen atoms. Later research revealed that bromine and certain bromine-containing compounds, such as bromine monoxide (BrO), were even more effective at destroying ozone than were chlorine and its reactive compounds.Hence statement 2 is correct.
22.Consider the following statements about Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) and
choose the correct one/s
1.It will be established to deal with bad loan problems.
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2.PARA will mean there would be lesser safety forpublic deposits in Public Sector Banks.
3.It will be an independent entity.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Land 3 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct
The economic survey of 2016-17 pointed out the twin balance sheet problem — stressed companies on one hand and NPA-laden banks on the other — and advocated.a centralised Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA) be established to deal with the bad loans problem.
The Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency or PARA will be an independent entity that will identify the largest and most vexatious NPA accounts held by banks, and then buy these out from them. By consolidating problem accounts across banks, the PARA is expected to solve two problems. One, it can effect speedier settlements with borrowers by cutting out individual banks. Two, as a single large lender, it can drive a better bargain with borrowers and take more stringent enforcement action. against them. PARA is expected to raise capital for its buyouts by
issuing government securities, tapping the capital markets or receiving a capital infusion from the RBI. In short, PARA is just a new version of the ‘bad bank’ idea that has been doing the rounds for some time now.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT
As a depositor, PARA will mean greater safety of the deposits with the tottering public sector banks. As a taxpayer, it is ones money that the Centre uses to recapitalise public sector banks when they indulge in big ticket write-offs. By moving large problem accounts to PARA, the government can separate the capital
infusion exercise from the clean-up exercise. PARA can raise money from institutional investors rather than looking only to the Government.
As an honest borrower, bad loans weighing on bank balance sheets means higher interest cost and slower transmission of RBI rate cuts. Once stressed assets are sold to PARA, the RBI can lean harder on banks to pass on its rate cuts.
23.Recently the phrase Radio-frequency Identification (RFID) was seen in news. This phrase refers to?
(a) New technology developed by NASA to detect distant celestial bodies from space observatory.
(b) Itis used for tracking of wagons, coaches and locomotives to ensure effective and transparent functioning.
(c) New band of spectrum exclusively given for the community radios.
(d) Radio-frequency Identification is used to detect poly metallic nodules in the India ocean region.
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Indian Railways is using radio-frequency identification tags (RFID) for tracking of wagons, coaches and locomotives to ensure effective and transparent functioning.The tag designed by the Centre for Railway Information System (CRIS) is estimated to cost Rs 1000 per tag.Using RFID devices, it will be easier for the railways to know the exact position of wagons, locomotives and coaches.Currently, such data is maintained manually, which leaves scope for errors.
While the RFID tag will be fitted in the rolling stock, trackside readers will be installed at stations and key points along the tracks to read the tag froma distance of about two meters and transmit the wagon identity over a network to a central computer.
24.What is the objective of Sankalp scheme?
(a) To provide assistance to villages affected by left wing extremism
(b) To boost Skill India Mission
(c) To boost Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(d) To support MSMEs under Make in India
Ans.B
Explanation:
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved two new World Bank supported schemes Skills Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion (SANKALP) and Skill Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE). SANKALP and STRIVE are outcome focused schemes marking shift in government’s implementation strategy in vocational education and training from inputs to results.
STRIVE scheme shall incentivize ITIs to improve overall performance including apprenticeship by involving SMEs, business association and industry clusters.
SANKALP envisages setting up of Trainers and Assessors academies with self-sustainable models and also aims at enhancement of inclusion of marginalized communities including women. Scheduled Castes (SCs), Schedule Tribes (STs) and Persons with Disabilities (PWD) to provide skill training opportunities to the underprivileged and marginalised sections of the society.
25.Consider the following statements
1. The advice tendered by Council of Ministers to the President cannot be inquired in any court of law.
2.When the Lok Sabha passes a no- confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers
have to resign except those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the given statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: A
Explanation:
Statement.1 is correct
According to article 74(2) of the constitution, The question whether any and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Statement 2 is incorrect
As per the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of ministers, When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
26. . Global competitiveness report is published by
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) World Bank
(c) IMF
(d) WTO
Ans: A
Explanation:
Global Competitiveness Report is released by WEF.
India has been ranked the 40th most competitive economy — slipping one place from last year’s ranking — onthe World Economic Forum’s global competitiveness index, which is topped by Switzerland.
On the list of 137 economies, Switzerland is followed by the US and Singapore in second and third places, respectively.
27.Which of the following is/are the examples of Physical Change in the properties of matter?
1.Cutting of trees
2.Rusting of iron
3.Evaporation of water
4.Burning of paper
5.Melting of butter
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1,3,4,5 only
(b) 2,4,5 only
({c) 1,3,5 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:
Physical Changes: The properties that can be observed and specified like colour, hardness, rigidity, fluidity, density, melting point, boiling point etc. are the physical properties. The inter-conversion of states is a physical change because these changes occur without a change in composition and no change in the chemical nature of the substance. Although ice, water and water vapour all look different and display different physical properties, they are chemically
the same. Examples: Cutting of trees, Evaporation of water, melting of ice/butter, sublimation etc.
Chemical changes: During the chemical process one substance reacts with another to undergo a change in chemical composition. Chemical change brings change in the chemical properties of matter and we get new substances. A chemical change is also called a chemical reaction.
Examples: Corrosion i.e. rusting of iron and burning paper
28.Which among the following is a part of Union Executive?
1.Attorney General of India
2.Chairman of National Development Council
3.Vice President
4.Chairman of Inter-State Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
{c) land3only
(d) All of the above
Ans: D
Explanation:
All the statementsgivenaboveare correct. Union Executive consists of President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Attorney General of India. Prime Minister is the Chairman of both National Development Council and Inter State Council.
29.Consider the following statements regarding the Wardha Scheme of Basic Education
1.It was proposed by Sisir Kumar Ghosh in Amrit Bazar Patrika.
2.The Zakir Hussain Committee worked out the details of the scheme.
3.The outbreak of the war in 1939 and the resignation of Congress Ministries led to the postponement
of the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) land2only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2and3only
(d) 2 only
Ans: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: In 1937 Mahatma Gandhi published a series of articles in his paper, The Harijan, and proposed a scheme of education called Basic Education, better- known as the Wardha Scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: The Zakir Husain Committee worked out the details of the scheme and prepared detailed syllabi for a number of crafts and made suggestions concerning training of teachers, supervision, examination and administration.
Statement 3 is correct: The outbreak of the war in 1939 and the resignation of Congress Ministries led to the postponement of the scheme. It was left to the National Government to take up the work after 1947.
30.Consider the following statements with regard to the Central Council of ministers
1.The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
2.The Council of Ministers.are collectively responsible to the LokSabha.
Which of the given statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
{c) Bothland2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct
As per Article 75(2) of the constitution, the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Statement 2 is correct
As per Article 75(3) of the constitution, the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
31.Consider the following features of the Indian Constitution
1.Rigid and written Constitution
2.Emergency Provision
3.Integrated Judiciary
4.Independent Judiciary
Which of the above features are unitary in nature?
(a) 2and4only
(b) 2and3only
({c) 1,2and3only
(d) 2,3and4only
Ans: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Constitution is not only a written document but also the lengthiest Constitution of the world. It specifies the structure, organisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. Thus, it avoids the misunderstandings and disagreements between the two. — Thus, written Constitution is a federal feature.
The division.of powers established by the Constitution as well as the supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its amendment is rigid. Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure (i.e., Centre — state relations and judicial organisation) can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments. Such provisions require for their amendment a special majority of the Parliament and also an approval of half of the state legislatures. — Thus, rigid Constitution is a federal feature.
Statement 2 is correct:
During the time of emergency, the Union Government becomes all-powerful and the states go into the total control of the centre. This provision converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. The nature of such polity from federal (during normal times) to unitary (during emergency) is a unique feature of the Indian Constitution. Thus Emergency Provision is characteristic feature of Unitary government.
Statement 3 is correct:
The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both the Central laws as well as the state laws. In US, on the other hand, there is a double system of courts whereby the federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and the state laws by the state judiciary. — Thus, integrated judiciary is a unitary feature.
Statement 4 is incorrect:
The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states. The Constitution contains various measures like security of tenure to judges, fixed service conditions and so on to make the judiciary independent of the government. — Thus, independent judiciary is a federal feature.
32.Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission
1. It is a statutory body.
2. This is controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. It is an investigating agency with the power to investigate against any authority which is subject to the
allegations of corruption.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
1 only (b) 2 and 3 only {c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance. Thus originally it was constituted as body formed through an executive decision. In the year 2003, it is a statutory body formed through the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible for the Parliament. The CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers.
33. Itai itai disease is caused by which of the following pollutants?
(a) Cadmium (b) Mercury (c) Arsenic (d) Nitrate
Ans: A
Explanation:
Cadmium (Cd) is one of the most toxic elements to which humans.could be exposed at work or in the environment. The outbreak of itai-itai disease, which is the most severe stage of chronic Cd poisoning, occurred in the Cd-polluted Jinzu River basin in Toyama. In this area, the river was contaminated by slag from a mine upstream; as a consequence, the soil in rice paddies was polluted with heavy metals including Cd through irrigation water from around 1910 to the 1960s. Mercury causes Minamata disease. Nitrates cause blue baby syndrome (Methaemoglobinemia).
34. Consider the following statements
1. Andaman and Nicobar Island are separated by a water body which is called nine degree channel.
2. Barren Island is situated in the Andaman Sea.
3. The entire island group of the Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar is built of coral deposits. 4.
Andaman and Nicobar Island receives convectional-rainfall and have equatorial type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1,2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only {c) 2 and 4 only {d) 1,2 and 3 only
Ans: C
Explanation:
There are two major island groups in India —one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in theArabian Sea. The Bay of Bengal island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These aresituated roughly between 6°N-14°N and92°E -94°E. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories — theAndaman in the north and the Nicobar in thesouth. They are separated by a water body which is called the Ten degree channel.Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
It is believed that these islands are an elevated portion of submarine mountains. The coastal line has some coral deposits and beautiful beaches. These islands receive convectional rainfall and have an equatorial type of vegetation. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Barren Island, the active volcano of India is situated in the Andaman Sea. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Island of Lakshadweep and Minicoy only is built of coral deposits not Andaman and Nicobar Island. The islands of the Arabian Sea includeLakshadweep and Minicoy. These are scattered between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude.The entire island group is built of coral deposits.There are approximately 36 islands of which are inhabited. The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Eleventh degree channel, north of which is the Amini Island and to the south of the Canannore Island.
35. Consider the following pairs of cities and the rivers on the bank of which these are located City River
1. Kota Chambal
2. Jabalpur Narmada
3. Hyderabad Musi
Which of the given pairs is/are correctly matched?
3 only (b) 1 and 2 only {c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: D
Explanation:
Town – River
Agra – Yamuna
Ahmedabad -Sabarmat
Allahabad -Ganga,Yamuna
Ayodhya -Saryu
Badarinath -Ganga
Calcutta -Hooghly
Cuttack -Mahanadi
Delhi -Yamuna
Dibrugarh -Brahmaputra
Ferozepur -Sutlej
Gauhati -Brahmaputra
Haridwar -Ganga
Hyderabad- Musi
Jabalpur -Narmada
Kanpur -Ganga
Kota -Chambal
Leh -Indus
Lucknow —Gomti
Ludhiana -Sutlej
Nasik -Godavari
Panchiharpur- Bhima
Patna -Ganges
Srinagar -Jhelum
Surat -Tapti
Tiruchirapalli -Cauvery
Varanasi- Ganga
Vijayawada- Krishna
36. Consider the following statements about an Indian river
1. It rises from the Brahmagiri Hills of the Western Ghats
2. Hemavati and Lakshmantirtha are its important tributaries.
3. In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam and
Sivasamudram.
Identify the river with the help of given clues
a)Cauvery (b) Krishna {c) Godavari (d) Pennar
Ans: A
Explanation:
Cauvery is a sacred river of southern India. It rises in the Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in southwestern Karnataka state. Its uppermost course is tortuous, with a rocky bed and high banks under luxuriant vegetation. At the KrishnarajaSagara, the Kaveri is joined by two tributaries, the Hemavati and Lakshmantirtha, and dammed for irrigation, forming a 12-square-mile (31- square-km) reservoir. In Karnataka the river bifurcates twice, forming the sacred islands of Srirangapatnam and Sivasamudram, 50 miles (80 km) apart.
37. Consider the following statements about Gandhi-Irwin pact
1. It was signed after the third Round Table Conference.
2. One of the terms under this pact was release of all people arrested for protest with immediate effect.
3. Congress in this pact agreed to withdraw the civil disobedience movement completely.
Which of the statements given aboveis/are correct?
3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
Explanation:
After a lot of deliberation and discussions with the delegates of the First Round Table Conference the Congress assigned Gandhi the task of negotiating with the Viceroy. Finally on Sth March 1931 the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed before 2nd Round table conference. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
The terms of the Pact were as follows—
(a) all people arrested for non-violent protest were to be released immediately (Hence statement 2 is
incorrect)
(b) fines that had not been collected were to be remitted
(c) confiscated land that had not been sold off yet was to be returned to peasants
(d) government employees who had resigned were to be treated leniently
(e) villages along the coast were to be given the right to make salt for consumption
(f) the right to peaceful and non—aggressive picketing was granted On its part the Congress agreed to withdraw the civil disobedience movement and also agreed to participate in the next Round Table Conference. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
38. The recommendation of Shivraman Committee led to the establishment of which among the following?
[A] National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT)
[B] National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
[C] Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
[D] Central Board for Direct Taxes (CBDT)
39. chooser the false statements about ERD:
A.it stands for effective revenue deficit
B.it was introduced in 2011
C. ERD= Revenue receipt — grant of capital to states for creation of assets
D.AIl of the above are correct.
40. find the incorrect match about following tiger reserves :
A) Simlipal- Odisha
B) Valmiki- Bihar
C)Pench- Maharashtra
D) Sariska- Rajasthan
41. Which of the following do not change from place to place and remains constant
a)Mass
b)Weight
c)botha&b
d)Nota
42. Which gland is called third eye as well as clockwork gland
a) Thyroid
b) Pineal
c) Pitutary
d) Hypothalamus
43. Which of the following is not a Bacterial disease
a) Tuberculosis
b) Tetanus
c) Rabies
d) Leprosy/Hansen’s disease
44. Find the incorrect match
a) Chloroplast — Kitchen of the cell
b) Mesosome — Protein factories of cell
c) Mitochondria —Power house of cell
d) Lysosomes — Suicidal bags
45. Find the incorrect match
a) Ruby or Sapphire — Aluminium oxide
b) Vinegar — Acetic Acid
c) Slaked lime — Calcium oxide
d) Spirit – Methyl Alcohol
46. is used a food preservative
a) Ehylene
b)Sodium Benzoate
c)Formaldehyde_
d) Nota
47. Find the correct statement
a) Diamond is an excellent electrical insulator but is the best naturally occurring thermal conductor
b) Graphite is a conductor of electricity but is a thermal insulator
c) Diamond is highly transparent but Graphite is opaque
d) All statements above are correct
48. Consider the following
1. Indigo Revolt
2. Deccan uprising
3. Patna Agrarian league
4. Bardoli Satyagraha
Arrange the above events Chronologically
a)1,3,2,4
b)1,2,3,4
c)1,2,4,3
d)3,1,2,4
49. The role played by an organism in an ecosystem is called
a) Ecological Niche
b) Habitat
c) Biosphere
d) Biome
50. Find incorrect match (Lake — Location)
a) Great Bear —- Canada
b) Huron—Canada & USA
c) Victoria — Tanzania (Africa)
d) Great Slave – Australia
51. Consider the following statements regarding Census.
1. it was 15″ census till now.
2. it was 7″ census after independence.
Chose the correct statement.
(A) 1 only
(B)2 only
(C)both
(D) none of these
52. According to Census 2011, what was the population growth rate of India from 2001 to 2011?
(A) 7.28%
(B) 21.8%
(C) 11.25%
(D) 17.72%
53.Consider the following statements regarding HDR.
1. The UNDP published the HDR every year since 1990.
2.” life expectancy” is not a component of HDI published under this report.
3. India ranked 131 in HDI list topped by Australia.
Chose the incorrect statement.
(A) 1 only
(B)2 only
(C)2&3 only
(D)1,2,3
54. which space agency has planned to launch “HYSIS” satellite to monitor– the environment from space, crop ,looking for mineral & oil & military surveillance.
(A) NASA
(B) ISRO
(C) ESA
(D) none of these
55. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Jnanpith Award?
1. Instituted in 1961, the award is bestowed only on Indian writers writing in Indian languages included in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India and English.
2. Renowned urdu littérateur Krishna Sobti has been chosen for this year’s Jnanpith Award.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) both
(D) none of these
56. Cyclonic Storm Maarutha is likely to trigger rains in which state in India?
a) Karnataka
b)Maharashtra
c) West bengal
d) Tamil Nadu
57. Jalyukta Shivar, is the flagship project of which state government, which PM has asked other states to replicate to tackle drought situation?
a) Kerala
b) Uttarakhand
c) Maharashtra
d) Rajasthan
58. which of the following are the initiative taken by GOI for providing legal services in India?
a) Tele-law service
b) Nyaya Mitra
c) Pro-bono legal services
d) All of the above
59. Which country recently had a referendum conducted for replacing the parliamentary system with an executive presidency?
a) Turkey
b) spain
c) myanmar
d) tunisia
60. Indian Air Force’s operation Bambi Bucket is being carried out to douse the wildfire in?
a)Lampokhari
b) Tirumala
c) Mount Abu
d) Pauri Garhwal
61. India in 2017 celebrated 33rd anniversary of the operation launched to capture Siachen Glacier.
What was its name?
a) Operation Parakram
b) Operation Restore Hope
c) Operation Vijay
d) Operation Meghdoot
62. Isro rescently launched a satellite to its NAVIC system in order to provide atomic clock, which was
failed earlier.
a. IRNSS 1h
b.IRNSS 1i
c.IRNSS 1g
d. none of these
63. India’s longest tunnel, connecting Chenani and Nashri towns in J&K, has recently been inaugurated, by the Prime Minister in which district?
a) Udhampur
b) Kathua
c) Ramban
d) Jammu
64. Recently from idian navy all women crew sailed around the globe. Which was the sailboat/vessel
they were carrying?
a. tarini
b. rajtarangini
c. nir-vahini
d. none of these
65. one of the most successful inititiative/scheme of GOI, “ujjwala” was launched by which ministry?
a. Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
b. Ministry of coal
c. ministry of renewable energy
d. ministry of home affairs
66. who is the author of the book “ the coalition years”?
a. Pranab Mukherjee
b. hamid Ansari
c. Narendra modi
d. reeshabh Chakravarty
67. who has recent! lauched “Saheli programme” to empower women entrepreneur across the country to sell their products on its market place?
A. Amazon
b. flipkart
c. e-NAM
d. e-Grams.
68. lapis lazuli route seen in news was majorlya route for trade of precious stones from:
a. India -to-afghanistan
b. India-to-iran
c. Afghanistan -to-europe
d. none of these
69. consider following statements regarding WTO conference at Buenos aires.
1. Held in argentina & it failed to garner consensus.
2. 119/164 countries backed Buenos declaration on women & trade is a non binding declaration.
3. INDIA voted against by saying that it is not the forum to discuss gender inequality.
Chose the correct statement.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2.only
(C)2 &3 only
(D)1,2,3
70.when did amartya sen got Nobel Prize ?
A.1998
B.1999
C.1997
D.1990
71. Khoksar,Udaipur and Killar are the important settlements that lies along the bank of river :
a.Ravi
b.Sutlej
c.Beas
d.Chenab
72. Two streams i.e. Supin and Rupin merge near the mountain hamlet of Naitwar and makes river.
a)Giri
b)Tons
c)Bata
d) Pabbar
73. When did Guru Gobind Singh visited Rewalsar?
a)1685
b)1675
c)1695
d)1698
74. Find the incorrect match: {Lake-Location)
a.Kuntbhyog – Mandi
b.Kalasaar – Kullu
c.Mahakali – Chamba
d.Unam So – Lahaul Spiti
75. Choose the incorrect match (Princely State -Foundation)
a.Bushahar – Pradyuman
b.Keonthal – Giri Sen
c.Kehlur – Bir Chand Chandel
d.Chamba – Maru Verman
ANS. All options are correct, error in question making.
76. Find the incorrect match (Towns-Founder)
a.Sundernagar(Baned) – Bir Sen
b.Shimla(Simla) -Major Kennedy
c.Mandi -Ajbar Sen
d.Sujanpur – Abhay Chand
77. Choose the incorrect one (Popular Name : Personality)
a.Kaviraj : Pt. Padam Dev
b.Maharishi : Nicholas Roerich
c.Sindhi Gandhi : Major Mehar Das
d.Architect of HP : Yashwant Singh Parmar
78. Choose the incorrect one (Popular Name: Place)
a.Ajanta of Himalayas — Tabo Monastry
b.Mainak Parbat —Shiwalik Mountains
c.Maulak Parbat — Dhauladhar Mountains
d.Valley of Honey and milk — Sangla
79. Consider the following:
1.Gaiety Theatre opened in Shimla
2.Bishop Cotton school opened in Shimla
3.Bhagat state was annexed by Lord Dalhousie under Doctrine of Lapse
4.Bhuri Singh Museum founded at Chamba
Arrange the above events chronologically:
a)1,2,3,4
b)2,4,3,1
c)3,2,1,4
d) 3,2,4,1
80. When did BJP forms Govt. in HP for the First time
a)1990
b)1991
c)1989
d)1992
81.Choose the incorrect one (regarding HP)
a.First Lokayukta — T.V.R Tatachari
b.First Chairman of State Administrative Tribunal — Mr. Justice Hira Singh Thakur
c.First Chief Justice — Justice N.C Mehta
d.First Deputy Speaker — Krishan Chandar
82. Find the incorrect match: (National Parks — Wildlife Sanctuaries)
a.Simbalbara — Sirmour
b.Shilli — Solan
c.Secha Tuan Nala – Kinnaur
d.Sainj — Kullu
83. Choose the correct statement
a.William Jameson — brought tea plants to Kangra
b.Captain R.C Lee — introduce British variety of apple in kullu
c.1918, Samuel Evan Stokes — introduced American varieties of Apples in Kotgarh, Shimla
d.All of the above are correct
84. Find the incorrect one: (HP)
a.Regional Bee Research Centre — Nagrota
b.National Biological Laboratory — Palampur
c.Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Mountaineering & Allied Sports — Manali
d.High Altitude Training Centre — Keylong
85. Choose the incorrect match (Glaciers)
a.Bhadal Glacier — Chamba
b.Gyephang — Lahaul Spiti
c.Sonapani — Lahaul Spiti
d.Miyar — Lahaul Spiti
86. Find the incorrect statement match: (Spring-Type-Place)
a.Kasol — Hot Water – Kullu
b.Salol — Cold Water = Kullu
c.Saldhara — Cold Water — Chamba
d.Vashist — Hot Water — Kullu
87. Find the incorrect Match: (Peak — Distt.)
a.Deo Tibba — Kullu
b.Dibibokri Pyramid — Chamba
c.Manirang — Spiti
d.Reo Phargyul — Kinnaur
88. Choose the incorrect one (Pass — Connects)
a.RupinGhati – connects Kinnaur Gharwal
b.Talang – connects Kangra Chamba
c.Sari Galu – connects Chamba Kangra
d.Padri Pass – connects Chamba Jammu
89. Which Raja of Sirmaur helped his sister ( a widow of Kharak Singh of Bilaspur) to claim her son as next heir by removing Mian Jangi.
a.Karam Prakash
b.Mandhat Prakash
c.Fateh Prakash
d.Amar Prakash
90. Choose the incorrect match (Scheme — Launch date)
a.PMJDY – 28 Aug 2015
b.Make in India – 25 Sep 2014
c.PM Suraksha Bima Yojna — 9 May 2015
d.Pm Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna —-9 May 2015
91. Under Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojna (PMMVY), a cash incentive of Rs. is being provided directly in the account of Pregnant women & lactating mothers for first living child
a)5100
b)5500
c)5000
d)6100
92. Choose the correct match (HP economic survey)
a.Subsidy under Rajiv Gandhi micro Irrigation scheme — 80 %
b.Subsidy for Poly Houses — increased from 50% to 85%
c.Subsidy for Anti Hail nets — increased from 50% to 80%
d.All are correct
93. Find the incorrect match (HEP — MW)
a.Sawra Kuddu Pabbar river, near Rohru, Shimla – 111 MW
b.Sainj HEP river Sainj; Tributary of Beas in Kullu Distt. HP – 100 MW
c.Surgani Sundla Ravi, Chamba – 48 MW
d.Renuka ji Dam (drinking water supply scheme to Delhi) -50 MW
94. Cities of HP under Smart City Mission?
a) Shimla
b) Dharamshala
c) Both (a)&(b)
d) Shimla, Dharamshala & Mandi
95. Total Gram Panchayats in HP :-
a)3226
b)3016
c)3200
d)3310
96.The first European traveler to visit Kangra was?
a) Thomas Coryat
b) Thevenot
c) Foster
d) Moorcraft
97.Who was the ruler of Kangra during the invasion of Taimur?
a) Prithvi Chand
b) Megh Chand
c) Sangra Chand
d) Purab Chand
98.Chamba became subject and tributary to the Mughals for the first time during the reign of Pratap Singh Varman, he was the contemporary of which of the following Mughal emperors?
a) Akbar
b) Jahangir
c) Shahjahan
d) Aurangjeb
99.Consider the following:
1. Helped the Britishers during the revolt of 1857.
2. Built the ‘Ranital Bag’ in memory of one of his Ranis.
3. Received the title of ‘the order of Indian Empire’.
The statements given above are associated with:
a) Raja Shamsher Prakash
b) Raja Raghubir Prakash
c) Tikka Surinder Bikram Singh
d) Amar Prakash
100.Who was the European came to Suket in 1820?
A.Huchinstan
B.William Moorcraft
C.Lord Curzon
D.Lord Mayo
